MET question pool

(C) 2010 Recreational Aircraft Association of New Zealand
RAANZ, Freepost 102829, PO Box 15-016, Dinsdale 3243, Hamilton

Your exam will be 20 questions randomly drawn from this question pool.

1 What is the difference between a weather forecast and a report?

A

    A forecast is current weather, a report is expected weather

B

    A forecast is expected weather, a report is current weather.

C

    A forecast covers an area, a report is for an airfield.

D

    A report covers an area, a forecast is for an airfield.

 E

    There is no difference.
3 Official aviation weather briefings are obtained from...

A

    Radio New Zealand weather forecasts

B

    aerodrome ATIS broadcasts

C

    the MetFlight GA website

D

    Air Traffic Control

 E

    www.metvuw.com
4 Weather briefings include...

A

    area forecasts (ARFORs)

B

    terminal area forecasts (TAFs)

C

    hourly reports (METARs)

D

    significant weather warnings (SIGMETs)

 E

    all of the above
5 To get the forecast for a general flying area you should request...

A

    an ARFOR

B

    a TAF

C

    a METAR

D

    a SIGMET

 E

    a NOTAM
6 To get the forecast for a controlled airfield you should request...

A

    an ARFOR

B

    a TAF

C

    a METAR

D

    a SIGMET

 E

    a NOTAM
7 To get the most recent hourly report for an airfield you should request...

A

    an ARFOR

B

    a TAF

C

    a METAR

D

    a SIGMET

 E

    a NOTAM
8 To get any weather warnings you should request..

A

    an ARFOR

B

    a TAF

C

    a METAR

D

    a SIGMET

 E

    a NOTAM
9 An ARFOR...

A

    is a general area forecast

B

    is a specific airfield forecast

C

    is a specific airfield report

D

    is a heads-up of significant weather

 E

     
10 A TAF...

A

    is a general area forecast

B

    is a specific airfield forecast

C

    is a specific airfield report

D

    is a heads-up of significant weather

 E

     
11 A METAR...

A

    is a general area forecast

B

    is a specific airfield forecast

C

    is a specific airfield report

D

    is a heads-up of significant weather

 E

     
12 A SIGMET...

A

    is a general area forecast

B

    is a specific airfield forecast

C

    is a specific airfield report

D

    is a heads-up of significant weather

 E

     
13 Other useful weather sources include...

A

    web based automatic weather stations

B

    web based forecasting sites

C

    inflight pilot reports

D

    talking to a pilot at your destination field

 E

    all of the above
14 A weather map shows...

A

    areas of high and low pressure

B

    isobars

C

    warm and cold fronts

D

    all of the above

 E

     
15 What does this symbol represent on a weather map?

A

    A high pressure area

B

    A low pressure area

C

    A cold front

D

    A warm front

 E

    A stationary front
16 What does this symbol represent on a weather map?

A

    A high pressure area

B

    A low pressure area

C

    A cold front

D

    A warm front

 E

    A stationary front
17 What does this symbol represent on a weather map?

A

    A high pressure area

B

    A low pressure area

C

    A cold front

D

    A warm front

 E

    A stationary front
18 What does this symbol represent on a weather map?

A

    A high pressure area

B

    A low pressure area

C

    A cold front

D

    A warm front

 E

    A stationary front
19 What does this symbol represent on a weather map?

A

    A high pressure area

B

    A low pressure area

C

    A cold front

D

    A warm front

 E

    A stationary front
20 Water vapour comprises .... of the atmosphere?

A

    about '80%

B

    about 20%

C

    a small and variable amount

D

    a large and variable amount

 E

     
21 Water vapour in the atmosphere is...

A

    always visible as cloud, fog, ice, rain, etc

B

    invisible until it condenses into cloud, fog, ice, rain, etc

C

    only present when it is raining

D

     

 E

     
22 Atmospheric pressure is...

A

    the weight of water vapour above

B

    the weight of water vapour below

C

    the weight of the atmosphere above

D

    the weight of the atmosphere below

 E

     
23 Barometric pressure...

A

    increases with increase in altitude

B

    decreases with increase in altitude

C

    stays the same with change in altitude

D

     

 E

     
24 The International Standard Atmosphere is...

A

    1000hPa, 15C, increasing at 30hPa and 3C per 1000ft

B

    1000hPa, 15C, decreasing at 30hPa and 3C per 1000ft

C

    1013hPa, 15C, increasing at 30hPa and 2C per 1000ft

D

    1013hPa, 15C, decreasing at 30hPa and 2C per 1000ft

 E

    1013hPa, 15C from sea level to the tropopause
25 The atmospheric thermal lapse rate is...

A

    the change in temperature with altitude

B

    the change in temperature with pressure

C

    the change in pressure with alititude

D

    the change in pressure with temperature

 E

     
26 A pressure altimeter...

A

    reads atmospheric temperature and displays it as altitude

B

    reads atmospheric pressure and displays it as altitude

C

    reads atmospheric temperature and displays it as pressure

D

    reads atmospheric pressure and displays it as pressure

 E

     
27 Air density...

A

    decreases with increase in altitude

B

    increases with increase in altitude

C

    is constant from sea level to the tropopause

D

     

 E

     
28 Air density...

A

    decreases with increase in temperature

B

    increases with increase in temperature

C

    is not affected by temperature

D

     

 E

     
29 Air density...

A

    decreases with increase in pressure

B

    increases with increase in pressure

C

    is not affected by pressure

D

     

 E

     
30 Engine and aircraft performance suffers under..

A

    decreased pressure or decreased temperature

B

    increased pressure or decreased temperature

C

    decreased pressure or increased temperature

D

    increased pressure or increased temperature

 E

    is not affected by atmospheric conditions
31 The altimeter sub-scale is used to correct for...

A

    instrument errors

B

    altitude variation from the standard atmosphere

C

    temperature variation from the standard atmosphere

D

    pressure variation from the standard atmosphere

 E

     
32 When set to QFE your altimeter will read...

A

    0 on the ground and AGL in the air

B

    airfield elevation on the ground and AMSL in the air

C

    0 on the ground and AMSL in the air

D

    airfield elevation on the ground and AGL in the air

 E

     
33 When set to QNH your altimeter will read...

A

    0 on the ground and AGL in the air

B

    airfield elevation on the ground and AMSL in the air

C

    0 on the ground and AMSL in the air

D

    airfield elevation on the ground and AGL in the air

 E

     
34 To set QFE on your altimeter sub-scale...

A

    set altitude to 0 at circuit height

B

    set altitude to circuit height on the ground

C

    set altitude to 0 on the ground

D

    set altitude to field elevation on the ground

 E

    set the the subscale to 1013
35 To set QNH on your altimeter sub-scale...

A

    set altitude to 0 at circuit height

B

    set altitude to circuit height on the ground

C

    set altitude to 0 on the ground

D

    set altitude to field elevation on the ground

 E

    set the subscale to 1013
36 Using QFE is appropriate..

A

    only when doing circuits

B

    in all phases of flight below 9500ft

C

    in all phases of flight above 9500ft

D

    in all phases of flight

 E

     
37 Using QNH is appropriate...

A

    only when doing circuits

B

    in all phases of flight below 9500ft

C

    in all phases of flight above 9500ft

D

    in all phases of flight

 E

     
38 ATC always use .... so your altimeter will show ...

A

    QFE altitude AGL

B

    QFE altitude AMSL

C

    QNH altitude AMSL

D

    QNH altitude AGL

 E

     
39 Flying from a low to high pressure area, your altimeter will read...

A

    lower than correct altitude

B

    higher than correct altitude

C

    always the correct altitude

D

     

 E

     
40 The general movement of weather systems in NZ is...

A

    North to South

B

    West to East

C

    South to North

D

    East to West

 E

     
41 An isobar is...

A

    a line joining points of equal temperature

B

    a line joining points of equal altitude

C

    a line joining points of equal pressure

D

    a line joining points of equal wind speed

 E

     
42 Tightly packed isobars mean ...

A

    calm weather

B

    strong winds

C

    an incoming front

D

    high pressure

 E

     
43 Airflow around a low pressure area in NZ is...

A

    Anti-clockwise and outwards

B

    Anti-clockwise and inwards

C

    clockwise and outwards

D

    clockwise and inwards

 E

     
44 Airflow around a high pressure area in NZ is...

A

    Anti-clockwise and outwards

B

    Anti-clockwise and inwards

C

    clockwise and outwards

D

    clockwise and inwards

 E

     
45 Low pressure systems tend to be...

A

    small and slow-moving

B

    small and fast-moving

C

    large and slow-moving

D

    large and fast-moving

 E

     
46 High pressure systems tend to be...

A

    small and slow-moving

B

    small and fast-moving

C

    large and slow-moving

D

    large and fast-moving

 E

     
47 On this weather map, which area represents a Depression?

A

    A

B

    B

C

    C

D

    D

 E

     
48 On this weather map, which area represents an Anticyclone?

A

    A

B

    B

C

    C

D

    D

 E

     
49 On this weather map, which area represents a Trough?

A

    A

B

    B

C

    C

D

    D

 E

     
50 On this weather map, which area represents a Ridge?

A

    A

B

    B

C

    C

D

    D

 E

     
51 A high generally indicates...

A

    widespread long term settled weather

B

    medium sized shortish term unsettled weather

C

    approaching front with localised short term unsettled weather

D

    localised short term settled weather

 E

     
52 A low generally indicates...

A

    widespread long term settled weather

B

    medium sized shortish term unsettled weather

C

    approaching front with localised short term unsettled weather

D

    localised short term settled weather

 E

     
53 A trough generally indicates...

A

    widespread long term settled weather

B

    medium sized shortish term unsettled weather

C

    localised short term unsettled weather- possible squalls and gust fronts

D

    localised short term settled weather

 E

     
54 A ridge generally indicates...

A

    widespread long term settled weather

B

    medium sized shortish term unsettled weather

C

    approaching front with localised short term unsettled weather

D

    localised short term settled weather

 E

     
55 Your forecast states a wind of 270/15. This means...

A

    15 knot wind from 270 degrees true

B

    15 knot wind from 270 degrees magnetic

C

    15 knot wind towards 270 degrees true

D

    15 knot wind towaqrds 270 degrees magnetic

 E

     
56 Winds generally .... with altitude.

A

    decrease in strength and 'back' anticlockwise

B

    increase in strength and 'back' anticlockwise

C

    decrease in strength and 'back' clockwise

D

    increase in strength and 'back' clockwise

 E

     
57 A squall is usually associated with...

A

    obstructions such as hills, tress, buildings etc

B

    approaching fronts, thunderstorms

C

    anticyclones

D

     

 E

     
58 Gusts can be caused by...

A

    obstructions such as hills, tress, buildings etc

B

    approaching fronts, thunderstorms

C

    thermals

D

    any of the above

 E

     
59 A warm wind descending on the lee of a mountain range is...

A

    a Fohn wind

B

    a sea breeze

C

    a land breeze

D

    an anabatic wind

 E

    a katabatic wind
60 An afternoon onshore wind caused by warm land heating the air is...

A

    a Fohn wind

B

    a sea breeze

C

    a land breeze

D

    an anabatic wind

 E

    a katabatic wind
61 A very early morning offshore wind casued by warmer seas is...

A

    a Fohn wind

B

    a sea breeze

C

    a land breeze

D

    an anabatic wind

 E

    a katabatic wind
62 An early morning up-slope valley wind caused by solar heating is...

A

    a Fohn wind

B

    a sea breeze

C

    a land breeze

D

    an anabatic wind

 E

    a katabatic wind
63 An evening down-slope valley wind due to valley cooling is...

A

    a Fohn wind

B

    a sea breeze

C

    a land breeze

D

    an anabatic wind

 E

    a katabatic wind
64 An inversion layer is...

A

    a stable layer of warmer air above cold air

B

    an unstable layer of warmer air above cold air

C

    a stable layer of cooler air above warm air

D

    an unstable layer of cooler air above warm air

 E

     
65 The temperature at which moist air becomes saturated and condenses is...

A

    the freezing point (0C)

B

    the dew point

C

    the boiling point (100C)

D

    the lapse temperature

 E

     
66 When moist air is cooled to its dew point, it becomes ,,, and begins to ...

A

    condensed, saturate

B

    frozen, hail

C

    saturated, condense

D

    compressed, warm up

 E

     
67 Saturated air condenses into...

A

    fog

B

    cloud

C

    rain

D

    any of the above

 E

     
68 A humidity of 98% indicates the air is close to ... and may ... if cooled further.

A

    saturation, condense

B

    freezing, hail

C

    cloudbase, rain

D

    boiling, evaporate

 E

     
69 A cumulonimbus (Cb) cloud is a source of ...and should be ... by microlight aircraft

A

    lift, utilised

B

    severe turbulence, avoided

C

    unstable air, flown through with care

D

     

 E

     
70 A rising parcel of air will ... and ...

A

    expand, warm up

B

    contract, warm up

C

    expand, cool

D

    contract, cool

 E

     
71 A parcel of warm air will ... until its temperature is ... the surrounding air.

A

    descend, cooler than

B

    rise, warmer than

C

    descend, the same as

D

    rise, the same as

 E

     
72 The adiabatic lapse rate for dry and saturated air is ... C per 1000ft

A

    3 and 1.5

B

    1.5 and 3

C

    3 and 3

D

    1.5 and 1.5

 E

     
73 Stable air is likely to have ... clouds and ... flying.

A

    flat (stratus), smooth

B

    lumpy (cumuliform), turbulent

C

    flat (stratus), turbulent

D

    lumpy (cumuliform), smooth

 E

     
74 Clouds form when ... air rises and ... to its dew point.

A

    hot, cools

B

    cold, warms

C

    moist, cools

D

    moist, warms

 E

     
75 At cloudbase the ...has reached the ...

A

    dew point, relative humidity

B

    dew point, saturation

C

    relative humidity, zero

D

    air temperature, dew point

 E

     
76 The order from least to most cloud cover is ...

A

    SKC, FEW, SCT, BKN, OVC

B

    SKC, SCT, FEW, OVC, BKN

C

    OVC, SCT, SKC, FEW, BKN

D

    FEW, OVC, SKC, SCT, BKN

 E

     
77 SKC means ...

A

    sky clear (0/8)

B

    few clouds (1-2/8)

C

    scattered cloud (3-4/8)

D

    broken cloud (5-7/8)

 E

    Overcast (8/8)
78 FEW means ...

A

    sky clear (0/8)

B

    few clouds (1-2/8)

C

    scattered cloud (3-4/8)

D

    broken cloud (5-7/8)

 E

    Overcast (8/8)
79 SCT means ...

A

    sky clear (0/8)

B

    few clouds (1-2/8)

C

    scattered cloud (3-4/8)

D

    broken cloud (5-7/8)

 E

    Overcast (8/8)
80 BKN means ...

A

    sky clear (0/8)

B

    few clouds (1-2/8)

C

    scattered cloud (3-4/8)

D

    broken cloud (5-7/8)

 E

    Overcast (8/8)
81 OVC means ...

A

    sky clear (0/8)

B

    few clouds (1-2/8)

C

    scattered cloud (3-4/8)

D

    broken cloud (5-7/8)

 E

    Overcast (8/8)
82 Cloudbase in ARFORs is given in ...

A

    AMSL

B

    AGL

C

     

D

     

 E

     
83 Cloudbase in TAFs and METARs is given in ...

A

    AMSL

B

    AGL

C

     

D

     

 E

     
84 A cold front is characterised by ...

A

    heavy rain, clearing to good visibility and a high ceiling

B

    widespread rain with lowering cloudbase and visibility

C

     

D

     

 E

     
85 A warm front is characterised by ...

A

    heavy rain, clearing to good visibility and a high ceiling

B

    widespread rain with lowering cloudbase and visibility

C

     

D

     

 E

     
86 Fog is simply ... at ...

A

    steam, boiling point

B

    cloud, critical temperature

C

    cloud, ground level

D

    steam, triple point

 E

     
87 Fog may ... after dawn until the sun has warmed the air to above ...

A

    linger, about 5C

B

    disperse, dew point

C

    rise, cloudbase

D

    thicken, dew point

 E

     
88 It is just on dawn, you are ready to fly, OAT is 8C and dew point is 5C. What should you watch for?

A

    fog forming while inflight

B

    fog on the ground now

C

    turbulence

D

    ice on wings

 E

     
89 A tailwind gives you ...

A

    higher airspeed, same groundspeed

B

    same airspeed, higher groundspeed

C

    same airspeed, lower groundspeed

D

    lower airspeed, same groundspeed

 E

     
90 A headwind gives you ...

A

    higher airspeed, same groundspeed

B

    same airspeed, higher groundspeed

C

    same airspeed, lower groundspeed

D

    lower airspeed, same groundspeed

 E

     
91 To maintain track with a crosswind from the left you should ... to the ...

A

    bank, left

B

    bank, right

C

    crab, left

D

    crab, right

 E

     
92 What is the effect of a constant wind on an out and return (A-B-A) flight?

A

    none- the tailwind component on one leg will balance out the headwind component on the other

B

    as for A, but only if the wind is directly along track

C

    as for A, but only is the wind is directly across track

D

    it will always take longer than in nil wind conditions

 E

     
93 What is the effect of a headwind on angle and rate of climb?

A

    angle increased, rate remains the same

B

    angle decreased, rate remains the same

C

    angle remains the same, rate increased

D

    angle remains the same, rate decreased

 E

     
94 What is the effect of a tailwind on angle and rate of climb?

A

    angle increased, rate remains the same

B

    angle decreased, rate remains the same

C

    angle remains the same, rate increased

D

    angle remains the same, rate decreased

 E

     
95 What are the dangers of a downwind takeoff?

A

    longer takeoff run

B

    flatter climb angle

C

    obstacle clearance

D

    stalling due to perceived higher airspeed

 E

    all of the above
96 What is the effect of a headwind on angle and rate of descent?

A

    angle increased, rate remains the same

B

    angle decreased, rate remains the same

C

    angle remains the same, rate increased

D

    angle remains the same, rate decreased

 E

     
97 What is the effect of a tailwind on angle and rate of descent?

A

    angle increased, rate remains the same

B

    angle decreased, rate remains the same

C

    angle remains the same, rate increased

D

    angle remains the same, rate decreased

 E

     
98 What are the dangers of a downwind landing?

A

    longer landing run

B

    high groundspeed on touchdown

C

    obstacle clearance on approach

D

    stalling due to perceived higher airspeed

 E

    all of the above
99 When flying in significant wind, how is your safe gliding distance affected?

A

    Not affected at all

B

    Reduced downwind but extends further into wind

C

    Reduced into wind but extends further downwind

D

    Reduced in all directions

 E

     
100 Your ground track turn radius in a 360 turn will be tighter..

A

    on the downwind half of the turn circle

B

    flying into wind

C

    flying out of wind

D

    on the upwind half of the turn circle

 E

     
101 Your ground track turn radius in a 360 turn will be wider ...

A

    on the downwind half of the turn circle

B

    flying into wind

C

    flying out of wind

D

    on the upwind half of the turn circle

 E

     
102 To fly a constant radius turn about a point requires...

A

    A steeper angle of bank on the upwind half

B

    A steeper angle of bank on the downwind half

C

    A steeper angle of bank flying into wind

D

    A steeper angle of bank flying out of wind

 E

     
103 Mechanical turbulence is caused by...

A

    hills

B

    trees

C

    buildings

D

    any of the above

 E

    an out of balance propellor
104 Mechanical turbulence may extend ... times the height downwind of the obstruction.

A

    1

B

    2

C

    5

D

    at least 6-7

 E

     
105 It is preferable to fly on the upwind side of a ridge because of ...

A

    Smooth rising air (free lift and no turbulence)

B

    higher cloudbase

C

    better visibility

D

    lighter winds

 E

     
106 When entering sudden lift, your aircraft will tend to ...

A

    accelerate and climb

B

    decelerate and climb

C

    accelerate and descend

D

    decelerate and descend

 E

     
107 When entering sudden downdraft your aircraft will tend to...

A

    accelerate and climb

B

    decelerate and climb

C

    accelerate and descend

D

    decelerate and descend

 E

     
108 In extreme updrafts your aircraft may be in danger of...

A

    stalling

B

    structural overload

C

    loss of control

D

    all of the above

 E

     
109 Windshear describes...

A

    a rapid change in wind speed or direction with height

B

    a rapid change in wind speed with height

C

    a rapid change in wind direction with height

D

    turbulence from a wing generating lift

 E

     
110 Windshear on approach into wind may...

A

    cause overshoot and possible stall

B

    cause undershoot and possible stall

C

     

D

     

 E

     
111 Convective turbulence is generally strongest...

A

    near ground level

B

    just below large cumulus clouds

C

    both of the above

D

    in the lee of hills and ridges

 E

     
112 The best way to avoid convective turbulence under a large Cb is to

A

    fly very low

B

    fly just under the cloudbase

C

    fly midway between ground and cloudbase

D

    fly wide of the cloud

 E

     
113 Rotor turbulence is generally found

A

    in the lee of mountain ranges below about peak height

B

    in the wake of helicopters

C

    just upwind of a mountain range peaks

D

     

 E

     
114 Rolling cloud on the downwind side of a mountain range is .. and denotes ...

A

    lenticular cloud, extreme turbulence

B

    rotor cloud, extreme turbulence

C

    lenticular cloud, wave conditions

D

    rotor cloud, wave conditions

 E

     
115 Long flat cloud above the downwind side of a mountain range is .. and denotes ...

A

    lenticular cloud, extreme turbulence

B

    rotor cloud, extreme turbulence

C

    lenticular cloud, wave conditions

D

    rotor cloud, wave conditions

 E

     
116 Wake turbulence from a departing aircraft begins...

A

    at the point of breaking ground

B

    at engine start

C

    at the start of the takeoff roll

D

    at the point of rotation

 E

     
117 Wake turbulence from a landing aircraft ends ...

A

    at the point the nose gear touches down

B

    at main gear touchdown

C

    at engine shutdown

D

    at the end of the landing roll

 E

     
118 Wake turbulence is generated by ...

A

    large high speed aircraft

B

    any aircraft wing generating lift

C

    wings without tip winglets

D

    jet engines

 E

     
119 Your own wake turbulence can be a danger in a 360 degree steep turn

A

    only if flying out of balance

B

    false

C

    true

D

     

 E

     
2 What is the difference between a weather forecast and a report?

A

    A forecast is current weather, a report is expected weather

B

    A forecast is expected weather, a report is current weather.

C

    A forecast covers an area, a report is for an airfield.

D

    A report covers an area, a forecast is for an airfield.

 E

    There is no difference.
120 Your own wake turbulence can be a danger in a 360 degree steep turn

A

    only if flying out of balance

B

    false

C

    true

D

     

 E